“EDUCATION” PRACTICE QUESTIONS -1 FOR SET/NET/SLET/TET/TRT/CTET/Dy E O /Ed cet

Table of Contents

1-20 QUESTIONS:-

1) Which Indian school of thought considers all knowledge as relative?

A) Vedanta

B) Jainism

C) Buddhism

D) Islam

2) In the eightfold noble paths given by Buddha, which of the following is the basis of ‘Right Knowledge ‘?

A) Right Faith and Right Resolve

B) Right thought and Right Concentration

C) Right Speech and Right Action

D) Right Action and Right Living

3) Which school of philosophy would favour the statement, “since both pain and pleasure are the wealth of man, they are his good teachers”?

A) Idealism

B) Naturalism

C) Pragmatism

D) Existentialism

4) “Idealism Educational Philosophy is the description regarding man as an integral part of mind”-this statement is related to

A) Plato

B) Ross

C) Bribacker

D) Home

5) “Truth is not stable in life” and “Logical desires” are the principles of ——?

A) Idealism

B) Realism

C) Pragmatism

D) Existentialism

6) Given below are two statements, labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Social movements are purposeful and organised groups that strive to work towards a common goal.

Reason(R): Social movements can advocate for a particular change.

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A)

7) Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Assertio (A): Emile Dukheim was marked as the greatest French Sociologist.

Reason (R): He gave importance to the social functions of education

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

8) List I includes the names of Indian thinkers, and List II mentions the books authored by them

Indian thinkers	Name of book
a) Mahatma Gandhi	i) A life Divine
b) Sri Aurobindo	ii)My Experiment with Truth
c) Swami Viveka Nanda	iii)Bartaman Bharat
d) Rabindranath Tagore	iv) The Home and The World

a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

9) Social change is

(i) a continuous process

(ii) not related to time

(iii) not a universal process

(iv) to change an individual’s life

Only (i) is true

10) According to Tagore’s education system, by which of the following does a child learn effectively?

(i) debates & discussion

(ii) reading, writing, and speaking

(iii) dance, drama, and music

(iv) travelling and interacting with nature

i, iii, iv

11) Match List I with List II and choose the correct option from the codes given below

List I	ListII
a) NPE	i) 2009
b) National Knowledge Commission	ii) 2005
c)National Curriculum Framework	iii) 1986
d) Yashpal Committee Report	iv) 2007

a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

12) Who was the Chairperson of the Revised National Policy of Education, 1986 Committee?

A) Janardhan Reddy

B) Acharya Ramamurti

C) y.n. Chaturvedi

D) Chitra Naik

13) Vocationalisation of Education in India was first recommended by

A) New Education Policy

B) National Policy on Education, 1986

C) University Education Commission

D) Mudliar Commission

14)Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Educational policy consists of the principles and governmental policies in the educational sphere.

Reason (R): Educational policy seeks to answer the questions about the purpose of education.

Codes: (A) is True, but (R) is False

15) Learning without burden is one of the major recommendations of

(A) Justice Verma Committee

(B) Yashpal Committee

(D) Mudaliar Committee

16) Cost-effective approach is also known as

(A) Rate of return Approach

(B) Social Demand Approach

(D) Human Capital Approach

17) Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Peer groups socialise children towards politics

Reason (R): Peer groups have the most impact when they get involved with political discussion and activities.

Codes: (A) is True, but (R) is False

18) Which one of the following is NOT an indicator of National Development?

(A) Population Growth Index

(B) Gross Domestic Product

(D) Human Development Index

19) Math List I with List II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:

List I	List II
a) Analysis of the existing situation	i. Opinion of the maximum members of the committee
b) Generation of policy options	ii. Affordability
c) Evaluation of policy option	iii. Incremental mode
d) Making the policy decision	iv. Political context

a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

20) Which one of the following is NOT the determinant of Educational Policy?

(A) Society (B) Culture (C) Climatic Condition (D) Economy

21-40 QUESTIONS :-

21) Identify the Principles of human development from the following and choose the correct option.

i. It is continuous

ii.It is sequential

iii. It is irreversible

iv. It is unpredictable

i. and ii only

22) Mental health refers to the well-being of which of the following?

i. Emotional

ii. Physical

iii. Social

iv. Psychological

i and iv

23) Identify the one which is NOT included in emotional intelligence skills.

(A) Self awareness and self-management

(B) Social Awareness

(C) Emotional suppression and social control

(D) Relationship Management

24) Identify the correct sequence of creative problem-solving

(A) Incubation, Preparation, Verification, Illumination

(B) Preparation, Incubation, Illumination, Verification

(D) Preparation, Illumination, Incubation, Verification

25) Which among the following is TRUE about Social Learning Theory?

(A) It suggests that learning is a passive listening process

(B) It emphasises the importance of innate instincts in behavioural learning

(C) It showcases the role of observing and imitating others

(D) It focuses on internal mental processes

26) Match List I with List II

List I (Descriptive Level)	List II ( IQ Ranges)
a) Superior	i. 55-69
b) Mildly mentally-retarded	ii. 120-129
c) Borderline	iii. 110-119
d) High average	iv. 70-79
	v. 60-69

a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

27) Which one of the following approaches to counselling is considered humanistic?

i. Person-centred Counselling

ii. Cognitive-behavioural Counselling

iii. Reality Counselling

iv. Rational Emotive Counselling

i and iii

28) Which among the following expansions of progressive matrices used popularly as a non-verbal test of intelligence is INCORRECT?

(A) Advanced Progressive Matrices (APM)

(B) Coloured Progressive Matrices (CPM)

(C) Radical Progressive Matrices (RPM)

(D) Standard Progressive Matrices (SPM)

29) Which among the following perspectives on emotional intelligence and the proposers of the models/are correctly matched?

(i) Goleman- EI Performance Model

(ii) Bar-on- Competencies Model

(iii) Mayer, Salovey and Caruso-Ability Model

i, ii, and iii

30) Given below are two statements, labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A) : Critical thinking involves identifying, evaluating and constructing an argument. Reason (R) : The ability to infer a conclusion from one or multiple premises requires examining logical relationships among statements or data.

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

31) The nature of teacher education is such that it involves:

(A) Only theoretical knowledge

(B) A combination of theory and practical skills

(D) Only subject-specific knowledge

32) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of reflective teaching?

(A)It is systematic and intentional

(B) It is based on evidence

(D) It is purely focused on students’ learning

33) Which of the following is a potential limitation of expository learning?

(A) It encourages excessive creativity and imagination

(B) It may not cater to diverse learning styles

(D) It depends too heavily on technology

34) Match the following

List I	List II
a) UGC	i. Enhances quality of secondary education
b) RMSA	ii. Enhances research extension and training support to school education at the state level
c) SCERT	iii. Universalisation of elementary education
d) SSA	iv. Promotion and coordination of standards of higher education institutions

a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

35) Which aspect of experiential learning involves creating new concepts or modifying existing ones based on experience?

(A) Active experimentation

(B) Concrete experience

(C) Abstract conceptualisation

(D) Reflective observation

36) Lee Shulman’s viewpoint on the knowledge base of teacher education primarily focuses on:

(A) Knowledge of the learner’s cultural contexts

(B) Multiliteracies and critical literacy

(C) Integration of context and pedagogy

(D) life-world of learners and communicative action

37) In Haberma’s perspective, “Communication action” means

(A) Use of persuasive techniques to manipulate students’ beliefs

(B) Collaborative dialogue and genuine discussion among participants

(D) One-way transmission of information from the teacher to the students

38) Find the INCORRECT match of the teaching model and its proponents:

i. Social Interaction Model–Dewey and Herbert

ii. Behaviour Altering Model– Carl Rogers

iii. Social Enquiry Model– Cox and Byron

iv. Information Development Model– B.F. Skinner

ii and iii

39) Which of the following are functions of NCERT?

i. Research

ii. Training

iii. Extension

iv. Publication

v. Dissemination

i,ii,iii,iv, and v

40) ‘To regulate and maintain the norms and standards in the teacher education system’ is the objective of

(A) National Council for Technical Education

(B) National Council for Teacher Education

(D) University Grants Commission

41-60 QUESTIONS

41) Match the following

List I	List II
a) Curriculum is a tool in the hands of the teacher	i. Taba
b) Curriculum is a plan for learning	ii. Ralph Tyler
c) Curriculum is all the learning experiences planned and directed by the school to attain its educational goal	iii. Foshay
d) Curriculum is all the experiences a learner has under the guidance of the school	iv. Cunningham

a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

42) “The informal education introduces the child to the culture of his/her society”, This education is called

A) Introduction

B) Acculturation

C) Socialisation

D) Training

43) Examine the following statements and choose the correct answer;

Statement I: The role of the teacher in the process of curriculum change is that of an expert

Statement II: They are key to curriculum innovation

Both statements I and II are correct

44) Which one of the following has launched the project ‘Operation Mathematics’ emphasizing the reorientation tf akk teachers?

A) NCERT

B) SCERT

C) DIET

D) CBSE

45) Which one of the following is NOT in the three bodies of Stakes’s Congruence Contingency Evaluation Model?

A) Goals

B) Outcomes

C) Transactions

D) Antecedents

46) Match the following;

List I	List II
a) Ralph	i. Congruence-Contingency Evaluation Model
b) Michael Scriven	ii. Reaction, Learning, Behaviour and Results
c) Robert Stake	iii. Objectives-based Evaluation Model
d) Kirkpatrick	iv. Intrinsic and Payoff Evaluation

a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

47) Match the following:

List I	List II
a) CIPP Model	i. Activity-centred
b) Traditional Model	ii. learner centres
c) Contemporary Model	iii. Decision-making
d) Activity Model	iv. Subject-centred

a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

48) Two statements are given below one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R): Choose the correct code for your answer.

Assertion (A): The Transaction of the curriculum is a difficult task.

Reason (R): As it is based on the theoretical and practical aspects as well.

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

49) Given below are two statements, labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose an answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Students are an important source of the curriculum development process

Reason (R): Students have gained knowledge through their learning experience.

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

50) Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) Competency-based curriculum emphasises complex outcomes of the learning process.

(B) It is usually designed around a set of competencies.

(D) It focuses on learning outcomes, through a set of pre-defined learning objectives

a,b,c and d

51. Match the type of research in List-I with its characteristics in List-II and choose the correct code.

List-I
(Type of Research)
a) Action research
b) Case study
c) Grounded theory

List-II
(Characteristics)
i. Participant perceptions are used for more generation of a theory
ii. Comparison of causes of events already occurred
iii. In-depth analysis and not generalizable
iv. Participatory and the findings cannot be generalised

Options:
(1) a – ii, b – iv, c – i
(2) a – i, b – iii, c – ii
(3) a – ii, b – iii, c – i
(4) a – iv, b – iii, c – i

52. A researcher wants to test “Whether a particular teaching method will reduce the absenteeism of standard IX in a school”. The research in the statement is an example of
(1) Causal Comparative Research
(2) Fundamental Research
(3) Action Research
(4) Historical Research

53. Indicate to which of the following scales of measurement a measure of preference of three subjects, such as English, Mathematics and Social Science, according to the interest of a student can be categorized?
(1) Ordinal
(2) Nominal
(3) Interval
(4) Ratio

54. Given below are two statements, labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): If triangulation is used, the validity and credibility of the findings are enhanced, and the pressure of any research biases is removed.
Reason (R): In triangulation, multiple data sets, methods and theories are used to address a research question.

Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

55. The maximum value of the coefficient of correlation is
(1) –1
(2) +1
(3) Zero
(4) 10

56. The right sequence of steps in a research process is
(i) Collection of data
(ii) Interpretation of results
(iii) Identifying the research problem
(iv) Writing the objectives

(1) i (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) ii (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) iii (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) iv (ii) (i) (iii)

57. Which of these are the parametric tests in the following list?
(a) F-test
(b) Median Test
(c) T-test
(d) Sign test

(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) and (c)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (b) and (d)

58. Which of the following situations calls for the use of a ratio scale?
(1) A researcher wants to assert that the two persons X & Y differ in their attitude towards nationalisation of education.
(2) He wishes to state that the attitude of one person X is more favourable than that of Y.
(3) He wishes to make a statement that, as compared to Y, X is much more in favour of nationalisation.
(4) He wants to show that X is twice as much in favour of nationalisation as Y.

59. Which of the following is an example of a Grounded Theory Design Approach?
(1) Observing behaviour in a controlled experiment
(2) Collecting data and systematically developing theories
(3) Analysing historical documents to verify hypotheses
(4) Surveying a large sample to confirm the existing theories

60. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Narrative Research?
(1) Exploration of context and emotions
(2) Objective and detached researcher perspective
(3) Emphasis on individual experiences
(4) Focus on objective meaning-making

61-80 QUESTIONS

61. ‘SWAYAM’ stands for:
(1) Study Website for Young Actual Learning
(2) Study Webs for Action Learning of Young Attentive Minds
(3) Study Websites for Automated Young Active Minds
(4) Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

62. The assumption on which Constructivist Theory rests is:
(1) The knowledge is constructed by learners as they attempt to make sense of their experience
(2) Knowledge construction do not necessarily bear any correspondence to external validity
(3) Learners are not empty vessels waiting to be filled in
(4) Learners are active organisms seeking necessary meaning

63. Whose theory revolves around the idea that social interaction is central to learning?
(1) Piaget
(2) Vygotsky
(3) Bruner
(4) Ausubel

64. Match the following:

a) Cognitive theory of learning → i. Abraham Maslow
b) Behaviourist theory of learning → ii. Lev Vygotsky
c) Constructivist theory of learning → iii. Jean Piaget
d) Humanistic theory of learning → iv. B.F. Skinner

Options:
(1) a – i, b – ii, c – iv, d – iii
(2) a – i, b – iv, c – ii, d – iii
(3) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i
(4) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i

65. Which of the following are the steps of Gagne’s Nine events instructional design?
(a) Gaining Attention
(b) Elicit Performance
(c) Providing Guidance
(d) Creating Content
(e) Reviewing Performance

(1) a, b and c only
(2) a, b and d only
(3) a, b and e only
(4) a, c, d and e only

66. A combination of both face-to-face traditional classroom methods with online learning is used to create a hybrid approach to teaching. This method is called:
(1) Synchronous learning
(2) Asynchronous learning
(3) Distance learning
(4) Blended learning

67. What is the full form of MOODLE, an open source Learning Management System (LMS)?
(1) Modular Object-oriented Digital Learning Environment
(2) Modular Object-oriented Dynamic Learning Environment
(3) MOOCs-oriented Digital Learning Environment
(4) Multiple Object-oriented Dynamic Learning Environment

68. Inappropriate application of ICT in research is an example of:
(1) Technical Lapse on the part of the researcher
(2) Inadequate provision of ICT resources
(3) Violation of research ethics
(4) Absence of technical expertise of ICT resources

69. The ethical and social issues of information systems are becoming more important these days because of the increased _______.
(a) Use of the internet
(b) Use of learning new technology
(c) Monitoring the students in the classrooms
(d) Cost of information systems
(e) Use of interconnected information systems

Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) and (e)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (d) and (e)

70. Given below are two statements, labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): MOOCs are learner-centred courses.
Reason (R): MOOCs are accessed by the learner in the presence of the teacher only.

Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are not correct
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

71. Given below are two Statements (I) and (II)

Statement I: A Portfolio can provide teachers and researchers with information relevant to the cognitive process.
Statement II: Engaging students more deeply in the instructional and assessment process, portfolio benefits students’ learning.

Choose the correct option:
(1) Both statements I and II are false
(2) Statement I is true
(3) Statement II is false
(4) Both statements I and II are true

72. Which one of the following is Self-Determined Learning?
(1) Andragogy
(2) Pedagogy
(3) Heutagogy
(4) All of the above

73. “Dynamic Model of Learner Autonomy” is
(1) Accounts for cognitive
(2) Metacognitive
(3) Action-oriented
(4) All of the above

74. Which one of the following is CORRECT of “R.H. Dave’s Taxonomy of Psychomotor Domain”.
(1) Imitation, Manipulation, Precision, Articulation, Naturalisation
(2) Perception, Set guided, Response mechanism, Adoption
(3) Reflex Movement, Basic fundamental movement, Perceptual ability, Skilled movement, Non-discursive
(4) Acquiring, Knowledge, Executing Action, Transfer

75. Who has introduced the understanding level of teaching?
(1) Hunt
(2) Bigge
(3) Cloud
(4) Morrison

76. Krathwohl’s affective domain focuses on
(1) Receiving, Responding, Valuing, Organizing and Characterizing
(2) Receiving, Valuing, Organizing, Responding and Characterizing
(3) Responding, Valuing, Characterising, Organising and Receiving
(4) Valuing, Responding, Characterising, Organising and Receiving

77. A holistic rating scale assesses
(1) Several dimensions together
(2) Views of the final product as a set of interrelated tasks, contributing to the whole
(3) One score provides an overall impression of ability on any given product
(4) All of the above

78. In Gallavay’s system of observation, the ‘encouraging’ and ‘restricting’ are the parts of
(1) Direct interaction
(2) Verbal interaction
(3) Indirect interaction
(4) Non-verbal interaction

79. Which of the following is the main assumption of Charles Galloway’s system of observation?
(1) Verbal training should be enriched
(2) Verbal communication is an adequate base of the teaching-learning process
(3) Non-verbal events do not matter much in the classroom
(4) Non-verbal communication can be more effective during interaction in the classroom

80. Match the following:

List-I
a) Memory-level model
b) Understanding-level model
c) Reflective-level model
d) Theory of Andragogy

List-II
i. Malcolm Charles
ii. Herbert
iii. Morrison
iv. M. Biggie and Hurt

Options:
(1) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
(2) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
(3) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
(4) a – iii, b – v, c – i, d – ii

81 – 100 QUESTIONS

81. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of the traditional form of organisation?
(1) Fairly steep pyramid
(2) Non-adherence to the chain of command
(3) Emphasis on top-down directives
(4) Formalised cross-cultural communication

82. Educational administration is a process of
(1) Utilising the appropriate resources for the development
(2) Documentation, record keeping and inspection
(3) Manage activities of educational institutions
(4) Planning, organising, directing and controlling

83. Who is called the father of Statistical Quality Control?
(1) Coimbatore Krishnarao Prahalad
(2) W. Edwards Deming
(3) Walter A. Shewhart
(4) Philip D. Crosby

84. Leadership can be denoted by the following:
(1) Dominance – Force stopped
(2) Dominance – Descendance
(3) Dominance – Following
(4) Dominance – Repression

85. In which type of leadership do leaders postpone decisions whenever possible?
(1) Laissez Faire leadership
(2) Democratic leadership
(3) Autocratic leadership
(4) Easy-going leadership

86. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer given below:

List-I
a) Tri-Dimensional Model
b) Managerial Grid
c) Contingency Model
d) Situational Leadership Model

List-II
i. Hersey and Blanchard
ii. Fiedler
iii. Bill Reddin
iv. Robert R. Blake and Jane S. Mouton

Options:
(1) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
(2) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i
(3) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
(4) a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – iv

87. Who is the founder of the Three-Step Model of Change Management?
(1) Rick Maurer
(2) Kurt Lewin
(3) John P. Kotter
(4) Jason Little

88. Match the following items of List-I and List-II and choose the correct option.

List-I
a) JIT
b) Poka Yoke
c) Deming Cycle
d) Six Sigma

List-II
i. Dealing with human errors
ii. Quality control
iii. Inventory Management
iv. Plan, Do, Study and Act

Options:
(1) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
(2) a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – ii
(3) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
(4) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii

89. Examine the following statements and choose the correct answer:

Statement 1: The critical path of PERT represents the shortest path in the project network.
Statement 2: Activities on the critical path have zero slack time.

Codes:
(1) Both Statements (1) and 2 are true
(2) Statement (1) is true, but statement 2 is false
(3) Both Statements (1) and 2 are false
(4) Statement (1) is false, but statement 2 is true

90. Which of the following principles of management explain that each group of activities with the same objectives must have one head and one plan?
(1) Scalar chain
(2) Unity of Command
(3) Unity of Direction
(4) Authority and Responsibility

91. UNCRPD is an abbreviation for:
(1) United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
(2) United Nations Concession of the Rehabilitation Policy of Disabilities
(3) United National Curriculum Research Persons with Disabilities
(4) United Nations Communication Rights of Persons with Disabilities

92. Find out the term ‘Oddman Out’ given below:
(1) Disability
(2) Dyscalculia
(3) Dyslexia
(4) Displasia

93. The objectives of the Rehabilitation Council of India is

Assertion (A): To regulate the training policies and programmes in the field of rehabilitation of persons with disabilities.
Reason (R): To promote research in rehabilitation and special education.

Choose the correct option:
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

94. The primary characteristic of children with dyslexia includes
(1) Attention deficit disorders
(2) Divergent thinking, fluency in reading
(3) Inability to read fluently
(4) Engaging in repetitive locomotor action

95. Locomotor disabilities pose challenges to
(1) Learn and display skills of problem-solving
(2) Understand verbal communication
(3) Execute distinctive activities associated with the shifting of objects
(4) Participate in games based on concentration

96. Peer-mediated strategies are
(a) Classroom-wide peer tutoring
(b) Peer Support Arrangements
(c) Lunch bunches

Choose the correct answer using the codes.
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a and c
(4) a, b, and c

97. What is teaching diverse learners?
(1) More inclusive method
(2) General method
(3) Learner-centred method
(4) Teacher-centred method

98. Effective teaching strategies for accommodating diverse learners is

(1) Universalisation Design for Learning

(2) Translation Method of Teaching

(3) Individualisation Method of Teaching

(4) Programmed Learning

99. Technology can be applied to support a diverse student population through

(1) Adaptive Technology

(2) ICT Learning

(3) Blended Learning

(4) Web-based Learning

100. The issues and challenges in the implementation of inclusive education are:

(a) Negative attitude of parents

(b) Lack of good transportation facility

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) a and c

(4) a,b, and c

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‘EDUCATION’ PRACTICE QUESTIONS -1

“EDUCATION” PRACTICE QUESTIONS -1 FOR SET/NET/SLET/TET/TRT/CTET/Dy E O /Ed cet

1-20 QUESTIONS:-

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41-60 QUESTIONS

61-80 QUESTIONS

81 – 100 QUESTIONS

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“EDUCATION” PRACTICE QUESTIONS -1 FOR SET/NET/SLET/TET/TRT/CTET/Dy E O /Ed cet

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