“EDUCATION” PRACTICE QUESTIONS – 3
“EDUCATION” PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR #TET#CTET#SET#NET#JL#Dy E O#DIET LECTURER
1 – 25 QUESTIONS
1. Select the correct order of Purusharthas.
(A) Dharma, Artha, Kama, Moksha
(B) Artha, Dharma, Kama, Moksha
(C) Moksha, Dharma, Kama, Artha
(D) Artha, Kama, Dharma, Moksha
2. The following are the branches of philosophy and their description.
I. Metaphysics – Deals with problems of reality
II. Epistemology – Study of knowledge
III. Axiology – Study of values
IV. Aesthetics – Deals with the appreciation of beauty
Which combination of the following is correct?
(A) I, II and III
(B) I and III
(C) I and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV
3. According to Rabindranath Tagore, what are the sources of knowledge?
(A) Book, Nature, Teacher
(B) School, Nature, Teacher
(C) Life, Nature, Teacher
(D) Curriculum, Nature, Teacher
4. Match List – I with List – II in the following.
List – I (Thinkers)
a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Rabindranath Tagore
c. Vivekananda
d. Aurobindo
List – II (Type of education)
-
Integral education
-
Man making education
-
Aesthetic education
-
Basic education
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 4 3 2 1
5. Identify the correct order of the four noble universal truths of Buddhism.
(A) Sorrow, cause of sorrow, cessation of sorrow, way to overcome sorrow
(B) Sorrow, cause of sorrow, way to overcome sorrow, cessation of sorrow
(C) Cause of sorrow, sorrow, cessation of sorrow, way to overcome sorrow
(D) Cessation of sorrow, cause of sorrow, sorrow, way to overcome sorrow
6. Gandhiji believes in the absolute oneness of
(A) Culture
(B) God
(C) World
(D) Country
7. Which of the following is the base for Vedic education?
(A) Pragmatism
(B) Idealism
(C) Realism
(D) Naturalism
8. “All systems of ideas are subject to verification by consequences” is the core of the philosophy of
(A) Existentialism
(B) Idealism
(C) Realism
(D) Pragmatism
9. Who advocated the ‘Project Method’?
(A) Emily
(B) Dewey
(C) Rousseau
(D) Kil Patrick
10. Naturalism is
(A) Humano-centric
(B) Socio-centric
(C) Child-centric
(D) Environment-centric
11. Positivism is a synonym of the word
(A) Uncertainty
(B) Empiricism
(C) Right mannered
(D) Pessimism
12. Who said, “Education follows social change”?
(A) John Dewey
(B) Durkheim
(C) Ottaway
(D) Johnson
13. Which of the following mobility is not related to modernization?
(A) Physical mobility
(B) Social mobility
(C) Psychic mobility
(D) Mobility because of science and technology
14. Ways of promoting national integration
I. Political unity
II. Social unity
III. Emotional integration
IV. Inter-religious marriages
Codes:
(A) I, II and III
(B) I, II and IV
(C) II, III and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV
15. The correct sequence of hierarchy of social groups from lowest to highest
(A) Family – Race – Class – Tribe – Nation
(B) Family – Class – Race – Tribe – Nation
(C) Family – Class – Tribe – Race – Nation
(D) Family – Race – Class – Nation – Tribe
16. The right to free and compulsory education for children between the ages of 6 to 14 has been inserted in the Indian Constitution as
(A) Article 21(A)
(B) Article 16
(C) Article 46
(D) Article 45 (A)
17. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
(A) Physiological, esteem, self-actualisation, love, safety
(B) Self-actualisation, safety, love, esteem, physiological
(C) Physiological, safety, love, esteem, self-actualisation
(D) Physiological, self-actualisation, esteem, love, safety
18. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): “Education and society are two mutually supporting systems, interconnected that one cannot thrive in the absence of the other”.
Reason (R): Education sustains society, preserves culture, and inculcates values.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
19. Cultural lag is the term used by Ogburn to describe how this takes place.
(A) Culture changes
(B) One phase of nonmaterial culture may change more rapidly than other material cultures
(C) Perceptual changes
(D) Morality change
20. The technique of measuring the patterns of social behaviour in a group is known as
(A) Sociogram
(B) Interactional analysis
(C) Social distance scale
(D) Socio-metric scale
21. Social stratification implies
(A) Social inequality
(B) Social injustice
(C) Social equality
(D) Social justice
22. The caste system is harmful because
(A) It denies social mobility
(B) It hinders national unity
(C) It does not allow inter caste marriage
(D) It separates social from political life
23. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Information processing system of human beings can be enhanced if their perceptions are changed.
Reason (R): Human beings process information similarly to computers.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
24. Which among the following is an in-depth method of studying behaviour?
(A) Clinical method
(B) Experimentation
(C) Observation
(D) Survey
25. Which among the following changes are denoted as growth in psychology?
I. Changes in physical dimensions
II. Changes that stop by maturity
III. Changes that take place till death
Codes:
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
26 – 50 QUESTIONS
26. Which of the following stages and their virtues are correctly matched?
List – I (Stages)
I. Early childhood
II. Play age
III. School age
IV. Adolescence
List – II (Virtues)
– Will
– Purpose
– Competence
– Cognitive development
Codes:
(A) I, II and III only
(B) II, III and IV only
(C) I, III and IV only
(D) I, II, III and IV
27. Which of the intelligences are true as per the theory of multiple intelligences?
I. Visual
II. Musical
III. Experiential
IV. Successful
Codes:
(A) I and II only
(B) I, II and III only
(C) II, III and IV only
(D) II and III only
28. ‘Conscious expression is a contrasting form of repressed wish’ is
(A) Compensation
(B) Denial
(C) Reaction formation
(D) Repression
29. Who is the father of structuralism in psychology?
(A) Edward Titchener
(B) William Wundt
(C) William Allport
(D) William James
30. Which among the following traits can be observed directly in the behaviour of an individual?
(A) Common trait
(B) Source trait
(C) Unique traits
(D) Surface traits
31. Which of the following best explains the dynamics of behaviour in groups?
(A) Behaviourist theories
(B) Humanistic theory
(C) Psychoanalytic theory
(D) Field theory
32. Who among the following is not a cognitivist?
(A) D.P. Ausubel
(B) E. Tolman
(C) J.B. Watson
(D) J. Dewey
33. What do cognitive theories of behaviour posit between the stimulus and its response?
(A) Conditioned stimulus
(B) Extraneous variables
(C) Intervening variables
(D) Reinforcement
34. What did Piaget call “flexible mental actions that combine one another to solve problems”?
(A) Accommodation
(B) Assimilation
(C) Operation
(D) Schema
35. Which of the following represents the right sequence of concept development according to Bruner?
i. Introduce the name of the concept
ii. Recognizes the essential attribute
iii. Identifies the attributes
iv. Arranges the attributes according to attribute values
(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
36. Ramu is experiencing heightened emotions, elation, depression swings in moods and mood swings. Then, in which stage of life is he passing through?
(A) Old age
(B) Early childhood
(C) Infancy
(D) Adolescence
37. According to Gagne, which of the following represents the correct sequence of a type of learning?
i. Multiple discrimination
ii. Principle learning
iii. Establishing S-R connection
iv. Problem solving
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
38. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of cognitive development according to Piaget?
i. Formal operational stage
ii. Sensory motor stage
iii. Concrete operational stage
iv. Pre-operational stage
(A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(B) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
39. Sindhu’s chronological age is 10, mental age is 9. Then what would be her Intelligence Quotient (IQ)?
(A) 111.1
(B) 11.1
(C) 0.9
(D) 90
40. A student uses the content of mathematics to solve problems in environmental science. Which of the following does it represent?
(A) Positive transfer
(B) Negative transfer
(C) Zero transfer
(D) No transfer
41. If a person strongly feels that he has to achieve maximum by utilizing his potential to the maximum extent, then according to Maslow, it is
(A) Basic needs
(B) Psychological needs
(C) Safety needs
(D) Self-fulfillment needs
42. Match List – I with List – II in the following.
List – I (Theory of personality)
a. Humanistic approach
b. Type approach
c. Psychoanalytic approach
d. Trait approach
List – II (Psychologists)
i. Freud
ii. Allport
iii. Carl Rogers
iv. Sheldon
Codes:
a b c d
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
43. Match List – I with List – II in the following.
List – I (Personality type)
a. Leptosomatic
b. Pyknic
c. Athletic
d. Mesomorphic
List – II (Characteristics)
i. Energetic, optimistic, and adjustable
ii. Craving for self-recognition, easy-going, sociable
iii. Unsociable, reserved, shy, sensitive
iv. Sociable, jolly, easy-going
Codes:
a b c d
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
44. The theory of generalization was proposed by
(A) Thorndike
(B) Gestaltists
(C) Judd
(D) Bagley
45. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a mentally healthy person?
(A) Lives in the world of fantasy
(B) Lives in the world of reality
(C) Insists on too much perfection
(D) Lives in the world of tension
46. If a student informs the school counsellor that he is having recurring thoughts of suicide, then what should be the first response of the counsellor?
(A) Informing the student that suicide is an irreversible act
(B) Conducting a series of counselling sessions from the next day
(C) Asking the family of that student to contact the counsellor
(D) Asking the questions to students questions to evaluate the degree of risk
47. A school counsellor is planning to conduct a session to help the students choose their profession. Which one will help him in his task?
(A) Intelligence test
(B) Aptitude test
(C) Attitude test
(D) Personality test
48. “Personality is the dynamic organization within the individual of those Psycho physical systems that determine his unique adjustment to his environments”. Who said this?
(A) Allport
(B) Michael
(C) Geilford
(D) Bruner
49. Which type of counselling is neither counsellor-centred only nor client-centered only?
(A) Directive Counselling
(B) Nondirective Counselling
(C) Eclectic Counselling
(D) Directional Counselling
50. Which of the following is in the product dimension of Guilford’s SI model?
(A) Unit
(B) Semantic
(C) Symbolic
(D) Evaluation
51 – 75 QUESTIONS
51. Which one of the following is an example of a directional hypothesis?
(A) There exists a significant difference between the creativity of secondary school boys and girls
(B) There exists no significant difference between the creativity of secondary school boys and girls
(C) Secondary school girls’ creativity is significantly higher than the boys
(D) There exists a significant relationship between secondary school students’ creativity and academic achievement
52. Which one of the following is the objective method of acquisition of knowledge?
(A) Authority
(B) Tradition
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Deduction
53. A summary of the research article is
(A) Abstract
(B) Executive summary
(C) Synopsis
(D) Proposal
54. This is a feature of + very skewed distribution
(A) Mean < Median
(B) Mean < Mode
(C) Mean > Median
(D) Mean = Mode
55. An ethnographic methodological study is a
(A) Philosophical approach
(B) Sociological approach
(C) Experimental study
(D) Analytical research
56. Which of the following tests will be used for testing directional hypotheses?
(A) One-tailed test
(B) Two-tailed test
(C) Correlational ratio
(D) Non-parametric test
57. A researcher has given 10 minutes extra to answer a test on intelligence to a group of students. This would result in this type of error.
(A) Random sampling
(B) Systematic sampling
(C) Random measurement
(D) Systematic measurement
58. Identify the probability sampling method from the following.
(A) Convenience
(B) Accidental
(C) Quota
(D) Systematic
59. The most appropriate measure to find the correlation between gender and pass or fail in a test.
(A) Biserial correlation
(B) Point-biserial correlation
(C) Multiple correlation
(D) Partial correlation
60. Which is the correct sequence of the steps followed in the educational research?
I. Data collection
II. Formulation of hypothesis
III. Selection of the problem
IV. Methodology
V. Analysis and interpretation of data
VI. Report of results
Codes:
(A) III II IV I V VI
(B) III II IV V I VI
(C) III II IV V VI I
(D) IV III II I V VI
61. The percentage area of the normal probability curve of 3 standard deviation unit below and above the mean is
(A) 99.7
(B) 99.8
(C) 99.9
(D) 99.6
62. Identify the correct order of the following steps involved in the phenomenological approach.
(A) Illumination, explication, incubation, creative synthesis, immersion
(B) Immersion, incubation, illumination, explication, creative synthesis
(C) Explication, immersion, creative synthesis, incubation, illumination
(D) Incubation, illumination, immersion, creative synthesis, explication
63. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Skewness influences regression.
Reason (R): Kurtosis measures the flatness of the frequency curve.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
64. If the majority of students score high marks in a test, then their distribution would be
(A) Positively skewed
(B) Negatively skewed
(C) Symmetrical
(D) Bimodal
65. Type–II Error means
(A) We reject the null hypothesis although no true difference exists
(B) We accept the null hypothesis, although no true difference exists
(C) We accept the null hypothesis, although a true difference exists
(D) We reject the null hypothesis,s although a true difference exists
66. On a test with a mean of 110 and a standard deviation of 10, an individual with a score of 140 will have a z-score of
(A) 25
(B) 10
(C) 5
(D) 3
67. This poses a threat of internal validity
(A) Interference of prior treatment
(B) Interaction effect of independent variables
(C) Interaction effect of treatment variables
(D) Interaction of selection and maturation
68. A specific feature that differentiates all experimental research from other methods of research is
(A) Direct observation of events
(B) Control of variables
(C) Manipulation of the independent variable
(D) Use of a random sample
69. This is an example of true experimental design
(A) One-shot case study
(B) Post-test only single group design
(C) Solomon’s four-group design
(D) Static group design
70. Causal-comparative studies are classified under
(A) Experimental research
(B) Descriptive research
(C) Historical research
(D) Developmental study
71. If the kurtosis of a distribution is greater than 0.263 the distribution is
(A) Flatly kurtic
(B) Meso kurtic
(C) Lepto kurtic
(D) Semi kurtic
72. When a researcher considers the individuals who are readily available as a sample, then this sampling method is
(A) Purposive
(B) Quota
(C) Snowball
(D) Incidental
73. Match List – I with List – II in the following :
List – I (Abbreviation)
a. SSA
b. DEB
c. NIEPA
d. NCVT
List – II (Field of education)
-
Educational Planning and Administration of School
-
Vocational Education
-
Elementary Education
-
Distance Education
Options:
a b c d
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 1 2 3 4
74. In the context of school, what does CCE stand for?
(A) Core Committee on Education
(B) Continuous, Comprehensive Evaluation
(C) Centre for Continuing Education
(D) Committee of Curriculum Evaluation
75. Which Article in the Indian Constitution provides for early childhood care and education?
(A) Article 43
(B) Article 45
(C) Article 41
(D) Article 46
76 – 100 QUESTIONS
76. Teacher education is considered as a technical education in
(A) India
(B) UK
(C) USA
(D) UAE
77. Which combination of the following authors is related to curriculum development?
i. Hilgard
ii. Alexander and Saylor
iii. Taylor
iv. Hilda Taba
(A) (i), (iii) and (ii)
(B) (iv), (iii) and (ii)
(C) (iv), (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii), (iv) and (i)
78. The general pattern of the learning opportunities provided to students is decided during which phase of the curriculum development?
(A) Curriculum goals
(B) Curriculum design
(C) Curriculum implementation
(D) Curriculum evaluation
79. Which among the following is not among the bases of curriculum?
(A) Learner
(B) Knowledge
(C) Society
(D) Teacher
80. Which among the following is an immediate intention of formative evaluation of a curriculum?
(A) To determine the impact of the programme on educational practice
(B) To appraise the implemented curriculum
(C) To assess whether the stated goals of the programme were achieved
(D) To refine strategies for achieving the programme goals
81. The leadership theory that focuses on the characteristics of those who assume power is called
(A) Trait theory
(B) Behavioural theory
(C) Contingency theory
(D) Structural theory
82. The capacity to influence people and accomplish desired objectives is called
(A) Power
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Status
83. PERT stands for
(A) Productivity Education and Revision Training
(B) Programme Evaluation and Review Technique
(C) Programme of Education and Review of Training
(D) Progressive Evaluation and Review of Training
84. Educational planning is required at
(A) Central level
(B) State level
(C) Country level
(D) Rural level
85. What are the characteristics of a good measuring tool?
I. Objective in measuring
II. Simple and easily accessible
III. Reliable and valid
IV. Usable
Codes:
(A) I III IV
(B) III II
(C) I II III IV
(D) I II III
86. Which test is used to ascertain an individual’s achievement status with respect a well-defined specific behaviour objective?
(A) Individual referenced test
(B) Criterion-referenced test
(C) Norm-referenced test
(D) Achievement test
87. The main purpose of establishing norms in a standardized test is
(A) Make examination work easier
(B) Minimizing scoring error
(C) Minimizing the interpretative error
(D) Increase the subjectivity
88. Subjectivity is least in this test
(A) Oral
(B) Objective type
(C) Short answer
(D) Practical
89. The physical approach is also called
(A) Software approach
(B) Behavioural approach
(C) Relative technology
(D) System approach
90. Find out the correct sequence of technology-based growth of learning patterns.
(A) ‘M – learning’ – ‘U – learning’ – ‘E – learning’
(B) ‘E – learning’ – ‘M – learning’ – ‘U – learning’
(C) ‘T – learning’ – ‘E – learning’ – ‘M – learning’
(D) ‘U – learning’ – ‘M – learning’ – ‘E – learning’
91. The number of categories in FIACS
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 11
92. According to Philip W. Jackson, the calm part of teaching is
(A) Pre-active stage of teaching
(B) Post-active stage of teaching
(C) Interactive stage of teaching
(D) Refreshment breaks in teaching
93. How will you identify a person with intellectual disability?
I. IQ under 70
II. Deficits in at least one adaptive behaviour
III. Deficits in more than one adaptive behaviour
Codes:
(A) by the presence of I only
(B) by the presence of II only
(C) by the presence of II and III only
(D) by the presence of I and III only
94. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Some people lose the ability to write after they have acquired the skill.
Reason (R): Brain damage or genetic reason results in motor impairment or inability to spell.
Codes:
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is not a reason for it
(B) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(C) (A) is incorrect, (R) also is incorrect
(D) (A) is correct and (R) is a sufficient reason for (A)
95. Which type of school does not come under the same category as the other three in not catering to CWSN ?
(A) Inclusive
(B) Integrated
(C) Multigrade
(D) Special
96. Which of the following indicates “problem with oral communication” ?
(A) Alexia
(B) Dyslexia
(C) Dysphasia
(D) Dyspraxia
97. Identify the most specific gathering of teachers with regard to the attainment of fixed professional skills.
(A) Congress
(B) Conference
(C) Symposium
(D) Workshop
98. Which among the given nomenclatures are the programmes recognised by NCTE ?
I. Bachelor of Elementary Education (B.El.Ed.)
II. Diploma in Elementary Education (D.El.Ed.)
III. Diploma in Secondary Education (D.S.E.)
Codes :
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I, II and III
99. Which teacher behaviours help in identifying an effective teacher?
(A) Honesty and commitment
(B) Liking for professional excellence
(C) Ensure student learning and understanding
(D) Express satisfaction
100. Identify the correct sequence of phases of professional development for a beginning teacher.
I. Acquire knowledge and build conceptual understanding
II. Action research, peer coaching, curriculum development
III. Analyse own instructional practice
IV. Classroom visits, peer observation, listen/watch audio/video models
V. Team planning and participation in the network
Codes :
(A) I II III IV V
(B) I II IV V III
(C) I IV III II V
(D) I V IV III II
